Hello
Everyone,
Today’s
post is a myth-busting post. And the myth we’ll be busting today is that
Sanskrit is the mother of all languages in the world. Let me summarize what
I’ll be writing below in a few words: It’s not.
It’s the mother of a small percentage of the world’s language, but even
that depends on what kind of Sanskrit you are talking about. Let’s see what the truth is.
One often
hears in India that Sanskrit is the mother of all languages, that it is the
oldest language in the world. It is
probably a statement which stems from Hindu nationalism. However, this
statement is not exactly true.
The truth
is something like this. There are thousands of languages spoken in the world.
Many of these languages can be grouped into languages families such as the
Dravidian language family, the Indo-European language family, the Tibeto-Burman
language family, the Uralic language family etc. Sanskrit belongs to the
Indo-European language family, which as I might have previously mentioned
includes English, French, Latin, Romanian, Russian, Persian (but not Arabic),
Urdu, Gujarati, Hindi, Marathi, Punjabi, Bengali, Oriya, Assamese, just to name
a few. In fact, the Indo-European language family has the most number of
speakers in the world. Now, other than some common words due to borrowing from
one language to another, Sanskrit shares absolutely no relation with non-Indo-European
languages; therefore, there is no scope of these languages having originated
from Sanskrit.
Now, let’s
come to the Indo-European language family itself. The Indo-European languages come from a common
source called the Proto-Indo-European (once again, previously mentioned). We
don’t have any written records of this language, but it can be reconstructed on
the basis of similarities found in its daughter languages. From
Proto-Indo-European descend many other languages which include (but are not
limited to) Proto-Germanic (the mother of languages such as German, English),
Proto-Italic-which later developed into Latin, which is the mother of French,
Italian, Spanish and the likes- and Proto-Indo-Iranian ,which split into
Proto-Iranian (the ancestor of Iranian languages, of which Persian is the most
known and Proto-Indic. This Proto-Indic also goes by the name of Vedic
Sanskrit, the Sanskrit in which the Rig Veda, the oldest piece of Hindu and
Indian literature, is written.
Hence, we
see that Vedic Sanskrit is not the mother of languages such as English or
Spanish, but rather their aunt. Vedic Sanskrit’s mother- Proto-Indo-European
had quite a few other daughters, and from these daughters, we get the non-Indian
Indo-European languages.
Now you
might be wondering how we can be sure that this so-called ‘Proto-Indo-European’
was not Vedic Sanskrit to begin with, and all other branches of the
Indo-European family diverged from it by evolving. Well, there’s a lot of
evidence to the contrary, and I’ll list only one of them. Firstly, Proto-Indo-European had three basic
vowels (a, e and o) and their long versions (à, è and ò). Vedic Sanskrit merged these into two: a and
à. ‘A’ and ‘e’ became ‘a’, and ‘à’, ‘è’
and ‘ò’ became ‘à’. ‘O’ became either ‘a’ or ‘à’ based on a law called
Bruggman’s Law.
(Those
familiar with Sanskrit will point out that Sanskrit does have an ‘e’ and an
‘o’, but in Vedic Sanskrit these were actually diphthongs. e was pronounced a+
i (ai) and o was pronounced a+u (au). Moreover, the current Sanskrit diphthongs
‘ai’ and ‘au’ originate from à+i (ài) and à+u(àu).)
We don’t
need the technicalities of the change but what I’m pointing out is Vedic Sanskrit
lost some information that the older language (Proto-Indo-European) had. And we
know that this older language had an ‘a’/’e’/’o’ distinction because the other
daughter languages such as Latin, Greek etc. maintain this distinction. Thus,
Vedic Sanskrit could not have been the real deal because it simply doesn’t have
those features, which the other languages possessed.
There are
various other features which Vedic Sanskrit has lost, which the older language
must have possessed to clearly establish that Proto-Indo-European is not the
same as Vedic Sanskrit, and therefore Vedic Sanskrit could not even have been
the mother of all Indo-European languages.
Also, you
might have noticed that all this time I was talking about Vedic Sanskrit, not
simply Sanskrit. When someone says Sanskrit, most people understand it to mean
Classical Sanskrit. Classical Sanskrit or Paninian Sanskrit is the Sanskrit
used long after it had ceased be a spoken language. Classical Sanskrit is a
codified language which was based on Vedic Sanskrit, but was standardized by
certain rules by Panini. These rules can be found in Panini’s work called Ashtadhyayi.
At the time of Panini, people did not speak Vedic Sanskrit but various languages
which had descended from Vedic Sanskrit (called Prakrits). Panini’s Sanskrit,
was in fact a language which was never spoken and therefore, it could not have
been the mother of any language.
Hindi,
Punjabi, Gujarati, Marathi- all of these languages come from the Prakrits,
which had come from Vedic Sanskrit. Classical Sanskrit- the Sanskrit that is
taught in schools- doesn’t even come anywhere in this tree.
Additionally,
the reason that Classical Sanskrit is so ‘scientific’ is because it was an
artificially created language. One more point worth noting is that the greatest
works of Sanskrit (such as Abhijnanashakuntalam) are in Classical Sanskrit,
much like the greatest Latin works are in Classical Latin (and not the original
Latin of Rome, from which modern Romance languages come). Ironically, these
works were composed at the time when the natural Sanskrit and the natural Latin
had ceased to be spoken.
Thus, in
conclusion, Sanskrit is not the mother of all languages in the world. It is not
even the mother of all Indo-European languages, though it’s related to them. It
is only the mother of North Indian languages (also called Indo-Aryan
languages), and that is only when you use Sanskrit to mean Vedic Sanskrit and
not Classical Sanskrit.
Yash
Hey Yash, how do you account for the inclusion of Sanskrit based words in Dravidian languages? When and how did this mixing happen? eg. Jalam in Tamil ?
ReplyDeleteHi Hip Grandma,
ReplyDeleteThe Dravidian languages and the Indo-Aryan language (which includes Sanskrit) have been in continuous contact for millenia now, and as a result there have been diffusions between these languages all through time. This has, in fact worked both ways. I can't think of any Sanskrit words which has come from Dravidian sources now, but there are plenty of them. Examples of Sanskrit words in Dravidian languages are also plenty (including the one you mentioned)
Also, the position of Sanskrit as the language of Hinduism (or Brahmanical Hinduism, at least) has helped to diffuse Sanskrit words into Dravidian languages.
In conclusion, this mixing happened as a result of contact between the speakers of these languages (just as many Hindi words are from Persian, English etc.) and it has been happening all through these years of contact.
Hi Yash, I have read your post and I am quite inspired as well as intrigued by it. I full agree with the context in which you have asserted this statement. I have been a student of French as well as German for the past 3 years and I am also an aspiring linguist currently in Class 8. The point I wanted to make was that do you not agree that Sanskrit has heavily influenced the other languages and I find every bit of in t German (I doing b2 level). Moreover, as you might be aware of, that asti is est in french and sanskrit is a very systematic language. I believe because of its technical supremacy hence influence on other languages, maybe it has been labelled as the "mother". What are your thoughts?
ReplyDeleteHey Abhilaksh,
ReplyDeleteI am so glad you've found my blog interesting and that you're interested in linguistics. While I do not know the specifics of the German language, I do know a little bit about French.
The asti-est correspondence that you're talking about in Sanskrit and French is actually because of the history of these language. It's something like this:
Proto-Indo-European: h2est- to be (h2 is a particular kind of consonant which disappeared in a most of the languages). So Latin to be became 'est', which French inherited. In Sanskrit, 'e', as I mentioned in my post became 'a' and so we get 'ast(i)'. The final 'i' is 'asti' has a more complicated history. It sort of indicates present tense.
Now, the 'every bit of Sanskrit' that you mention in German. I don't know how to answer that specifically because I don't know what you mean by 'every bit of Sanskrit in German'. However, there is no denying that there are common features between Sanskrit and German or Sanskrit and any other Indo-European language. But these common features are not because German or the other languages originated from Sanskrit but because Sanskrit and German come from the same source language (Proto-Indo-European). I think you would be very interested in checking these links out: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_language and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_sound_laws
I am so happy that you are interested in Linguistics. Keep up your interest. And thank you once again for reading my blog.
Yash
Thanks Yash for providing me with this valuable information.
DeleteI am also going to appear for the Panini Linguistics Olympiad this year and I am totally unaware of the scope of questions and the method of preparation, etc. Kindly advise me on how to accomplish all this. Being in Class IX, I have though of appearing for the Junior Olympiad rather than the Senior one. And what chances are that I may get selected for the OCSC or for that matter, the olympiad itself. And will you participating next year? I am seriously eager to meet you. ! Kindly give your email id so that I may contact you in a more appropriate manner, if you please. my id is abhilaksh.verma@gmail,com